California | Entertainment Law
3/22/11, 10:42 am
Legal Question
Back in the 60's, I wrote a song that was recorded in the United States, but never released (or so I thought). Came to find out, it was released at some point in the United Kingdom and had become quite a big hit overseas. Never signed a contract or copyrighted the song - as the artist who wrote the song, I think I am due some type of compensation in the form of foreign royalties, etc. since I never signed over the rights to release the song or otherwise gave my permission to do anything with it for monetary purposes.
Any guidance on this subject would be most appreciated.
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Read More Answered By: Keith E. Cooper |
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