i have a question my grandfather died in 1997 before he died he didn't make any will for his 3 sons and 3 daughters (who (daughters) were married before 1992). then with the mutual understanding my dad took over the business and gave everyone their share ( including his sisters even though by Maharashtra law they were not supposed to get anything because they were married be 1992 and the law has just changed in 1994 or 2004) correct me if i am wrong, now the situation is my father has taken signatures of his widowed mother, brothers and sisters saying that he has given their share on a piece of paper with to witness from that one is died and the other is an illiterate (both of them works in this office) without any lawyer in present or a registered stamp on it. My father thinks that it is still ok and can be used against them if they come and ask for their share again. Me, my sisters and my mother insisted him to go and get the paper registered in court are we wrong.
1 Answer from Attorneys
Since that piece of paper bears their signature, their consent is obvious. But, it would be better if you get it at least notarized on a stamp paper.
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