California  |  Family Law

Legal Question

Asked on: 4/14/13, 8:17 am

My ex-wife and I have been separated since October, and she changed her tax withholding to deliberately underpay her 2012 share of Federal taxes to pocket more. As a result we owe about $9,000 and she is refusing to pay her share. Three questions please;

1) What precedent in CA law exists about her having to pay her share?

2) Can someone confirm that this would at least qualify as Epstein credits?

3) As I'm going to have to borrow money to pay shouldn't she have to help repay that loan and interest

I'm happy to do my share but this is totally unfair.

Didn't find what you were looking for? Ask an Attorney!

Get answers from the top Attorneys
Ask Question

81 Answers given in the last few hours.

86611 Active attorneys ready to answer your question

Search Past Answers:
  Advanced Search