Question
real estate short sale
The seller wants to include a clause in the contract that states: The sale of the property will be considered full satifaction of the mortagage. The bank will not seek a deficiency judgement against seller or buyer and will report the mortage as paid in full and satisfied. Should this be part of the sales agreement or worked out between the seller and the mtg. holder? IS there any harm in the buyer signing a contract with this agreement in it?
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