I'm currently owner financing land/home to Lessee since
2004. In 2007, unbeknownst to me, Lessee went to County Tax
office and had property taxes of said land/home put in his
name. Once I found out, I contacted said office and inquired
about it. They(tax office) said it was legal for him to do
so but that the said property is still listed as me being
the owner of property and if he was to default, I would be
liable for taxes.
That's not the problem as of yet. A point has been brought
up to me that if Lessee continues to make the property tax
payments for 7 years continuously, the owner of property
automatically converts to Lessee. Is this the case and if
so, must I hire an attorney to correct this before the 7
years is up.....2014?