My husband's ex wife was suppose to put their home (both names on mortgage) "on the market" today. She put a For Sale By Owner sign in the front yard with no contact info on it. Is this with the " on the market" definition? The paragraph in the agreement states that Husband and Wife agree the property (address) will be placed on the market April 1, 2013 and sold. Wife will receive all proceeds from sale of property. Is this for sale by owner sign in compliance? Is it possible to get a property settlement that is already recorded in the divorce changed after 3 years?