My wife and I recently put a offer in on a house and 5 acres of land. We were denied by the home owners and they gave two reasons. 1. The homeowners real estate agent said the mortgage company we chose were so new that the home owners didn't know if they were reputable, and 2. The homeowners found out that my wife and I had a forecloser in the past. My thinking on this is...if the homeowners get the money at closing, why should they have any issues on how new a mortgage company is? And....as long as they get their money at closing, what should they care if we've had a forecloser in the past? Obviously, if we are getting financing, our credit issues have been repaired. I was wondering, because of the reasons they gave for not allowing us to buy their property, if we have grounds for a discrimination lawsuit?