My wife and I recently put a offer in on a house and 5 acres of land. We were denied by the home owners and they gave two reasons. 1. The homeowners real estate agent said the mortgage company we chose were so new that the home owners didn't know if they were reputable, and 2. The homeowners found out that my wife and I had a forecloser in the past. My thinking on this is...if the homeowners get the money at closing, why should they have any issues on how new a mortgage company is? And....as long as they get their money at closing, what should they care if we've had a forecloser in the past? Obviously, if we are getting financing, our credit issues have been repaired. I was wondering, because of the reasons they gave for not allowing us to buy their property, if we have grounds for a discrimination lawsuit?
1 Answer from Attorneys
Hello. This website provides general information, not legal advice. You need to contact a private attorney for an opinion. Your post omits certain facts that need to be known in order to provide you with legal advice. Typically a seller will retain the right to reject offers. Rejection of an offer for an illegal discriminatory reason potentially creates liability. Please seek an opinion from a private attorney. Some attorneys, myself included, are available seven days for emergency legal needs. Many attorneys will confer initially at no charge. Then, if legal work is performed, some attorneys, myself included, will provide a reduced fee for financial hardship. Some attorneys, myself included, may also assist you in limited scope manner to conserve legal costs. All the best.