Legal Question in Family Law in Minnesota

relationship dissolve

when two people live together and only one pays for almost everything,and they split up can the one who didn,t pay demand property that the one who paid.


Asked on 7/15/09, 11:10 am

1 Answer from Attorneys

John Jesperson Minnesota Lawyers - Jesperson Law Offices

Re: relationship dissolve

It does not make any difference who purchased property during the marriage, or who earned the most money. In general, all property acquired during the term of the marriage is marital property and will be divided more or less equally between parties in the event of a divorce. There are a few exceptions to this general rule. Property that was purchased with an inheritance, for example, may be non-marital property. Further, if there is a great disparity between the parties' income and resources, the court may award somewhat more property to one of the parties to avoid a profound hardship. Whether any of the exceptions to the general rule will apply depends on the circumstances of the case, and these need to be examined carefully.

Finally, you should be aware that it also makes little difference if the property that was purchased during the marriage is only titled the name of one of the parties. This usually applies to houses and cars, but is true of any property for which a title or some form of certificate of ownership may be issued. As a general rule, it does not make any difference if property purchased during the marriage is only "in the name" of one party. It is still marital property and will be taken into consideration in the division of property between the parties.

Once again, each case is different, and the facts need to be examined. You should call for more specific advice and guidance.

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Answered on 7/15/09, 12:02 pm


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