Legal Question in Family Law in Missouri

home

If a property has been signed over in a divore decree but the deed has not been sighned over yet, is there anything that the person can do to stop the selling of that property or any way that they can get that property back, or anything out of it when it is sold? It has been almost 3 yrs., with no signature.


Asked on 5/22/03, 10:48 am

1 Answer from Attorneys

Michael R. Nack Michael R. Nack, Attorney at Law

Re: home

If you are the person who was awarded the real estate in your divorce decree, and the Judgment includes that award, you may be able to dispose of the real estate without the need for your ex-spouse's signature on an actual deed. It might depend upon the way that the Judgment was worded. It may be possible for you in this situation to simply record the Judgment with the Recorder of Deeds so that any one searching the title to the real estate will see that you are the owner of record. Your question does not really tell us enough information to provide you with any definite advice. I would suggest that you contact an attorney, perhaps the one who represented you in the divorce, and obtain competent legal advice.

Read more
Answered on 5/22/03, 4:10 pm


Related Questions & Answers

More Family Law, Divorce, Child Custody and Adoption questions and answers in Missouri