I understand that inheritance is considered seperate property in a divorce, but how does that work where that inheritance was used towards buying the marital house?
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Read More Answered By: Anthony Smith |
If one takes theri individual inheritance and uses it as part of the funds to purchase a marital home, those funds may have become marital property subject to division in divorce. If you had inherited the home itself, and then let yoru wife move in, it might have been different. but, it appears that the home is maritla property without any consideration of the source of the purchase funds. Of course, your divorce attorney may find facts that could alter that determination.
Good luck |
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