My wife signed a contract with a hotel for a room block and sent them the agreement. They never signed it and sent it back to us and three months later, we'd like to back out. Is the agreement still valid if they didn't sign it and send it to us? Or can they just sign the one we sent and say it was signed previously? In other words, do all parties have to have the signed agreement in their hands?
1 Answer from Attorneys
It depends...actually contracts really only need to be signed by the party whom the other side wants to enforce it against. In other words, if I want to enforce a contract, it doesn't matter if I sign it, it matters if the other person signed it and some type of performance has occurred.
You might need to do a quick consult with a contracts attorney to tell you what you can do.
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