Title to home is in two parties names, one has been residing in home for a full year and paying rent to mortgage owner not living at residence. Lawyer told renter that no agreement was signed so payment does not have to be made to morgage owner. Is this true? Is this not considered a verbal agreement? Payments have been made, therefore, is this proof of verbal agreement? What case laws can be recommended to read to become more familiar with this type of real estate issue and what rights each party has?