Legal Question in Real Estate Law in Ohio

Home Owner/rRenter

Title to home is in two parties names, one has been residing in home for a full year and paying rent to mortgage owner not living at residence. Lawyer told renter that no agreement was signed so payment does not have to be made to morgage owner. Is this true? Is this not considered a verbal agreement? Payments have been made, therefore, is this proof of verbal agreement? What case laws can be recommended to read to become more familiar with this type of real estate issue and what rights each party has?

Asked on 3/13/09, 11:58 am

1 Answer from Attorneys

Lesley Hoenig Lesley A. Hoenig, Attorney at Law
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Re: Home Owner/rRenter

I'm confused, you say the person living in the home is on the title, but not on the mortgage? How did this come about?

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3/15/09, 7:26 am

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