Legal Question in Real Estate Law in Ohio

My husband and I bought a house from my In-laws in 2002. His mother's name is still on the title as well as myself and my husband's. Can I assume that we own the house equally to a third and would my husband and I able to sell without my mothers permission ?

Asked on 10/20/09, 11:15 am

1 Answer from Attorneys

Elizabeth Schmitz Elizabeth S. Schmitz Attorney at Law
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You would need your mother-in-law's consent to sell the property.

The deed would have to be reviewed to determine the type of ownership.

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10/20/09, 4:39 pm

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