Legal Question in Real Estate Law in Ohio
My husband and I bought a house from my In-laws in 2002. His mother's name is still on the title as well as myself and my husband's. Can I assume that we own the house equally to a third and would my husband and I able to sell without my mothers permission ?
Asked on 10/20/09, 11:15 am
1 Answer from Attorneys
Elizabeth Schmitz
Elizabeth S. Schmitz Attorney at Law
You would need your mother-in-law's consent to sell the property.
The deed would have to be reviewed to determine the type of ownership.
Answered on 10/20/09, 4:39 pm
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