My husband and I bought a house from my In-laws in 2002. His mother's name is still on the title as well as myself and my husband's. Can I assume that we own the house equally to a third and would my husband and I able to sell without my mothers permission ?
Answered on: 10/20/09, 4:39 pm by Elizabeth Schmitz
You would need your mother-in-law's consent to sell the property.
The deed would have to be reviewed to determine the type of ownership.
Did you find this answer helpful?
0 Users found this answer helpful.
0 Attorneys agree with this answer.
Elizabeth S. Schmitz Attorney at Law 1900 Polaris Parkway Suite 450 Columbus, OH 43240► Other answers from this attorney