Ohio  |  Real Estate Law

Legal Question

Asked on: 10/20/09, 11:15 am

My husband and I bought a house from my In-laws in 2002. His mother's name is still on the title as well as myself and my husband's. Can I assume that we own the house equally to a third and would my husband and I able to sell without my mothers permission ?

1 Answer


Answered on: 10/20/09, 4:39 pm by Elizabeth Schmitz

You would need your mother-in-law's consent to sell the property.

The deed would have to be reviewed to determine the type of ownership.


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Elizabeth S. Schmitz Attorney at Law 1900 Polaris Parkway Suite 450 Columbus, OH 43240

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