The county I live in passed an ordinance abandoning an old farm road behind my property. The ordinance states the property of the old road is now divided down the middle and reverts to property owners on either side. Now a third party has bought a forty acre tract behind us and wants to reopen the old road to access for further development. He does own other property in the existing subdivision that would allow access to the forty acres. My question is the city ordinance enough to prevent a road from reopening if the city abandoned it sixteen years ago?