Legal Question in Family Law in California

My wife and I separated June 2009. When we purchased our home in March of 1998 (married December1994), she used part of a pre-marriage inheritance from her grandmother to help with the down payment. I have been the sole payor on the mortgage since inception. Will she be awarded separate property (she is claiming) for the down payment funds that were provided ?


Asked on 1/02/10, 7:16 am

2 Answers from Attorneys

Thurman Arnold III Law Firm of Thurman W. Arnold III

The very first question is: Are you on title?

If you went on title when the house was purchased, or if you since had your name added for any reason (estate planning, refinances), then a transmutation has occurred and the house is now community property, subject to a Family Code section 2640 reimbursement to her for the separate property contribution (inheritance - and assuming it was not commingled first).

It doesn't matter who paid the mortgage, so long as it was paid from community earnings during the marriage.

There is a very important concept under California Law involving what is generally known as "Moore-Marsden apportionment." It applies to a common situation where a home is acquired before marriage, title is in the name of the acquiring spouse alone, and during the marriage and up to separation or divorce filing the mortgage is paid down with community funds.

Where this occurs the community estate acquires a legal, reimbursable, interest in what would be otherwise be entirely the separate property of the titled spouse IF community funds (earnings of either spouse, for instance, or both) are used to make the mortgage payments. The idea is that joint funds are being used to benefit a separate property interest, i.e., the separate property equity. Many legal scholars consider this to be a breach of fiduciary duty - that whenever one or the other spouse's separate property interests are increased with community funds, or community time, skill, and efforts of either spouse during the marriage, the community is disadvantaged and that this disadvantage violates the statutory duties of the parties that place the party's joint interests above their separate interests.

The formula for apportionment is that the community acquires a pro tanto (dollar for dollar) interest in the ratio that principal payments on the purchase price made with community property bear to payments made with separate property. Hence, any increase in value (appreciation) must be apportioned accordingly between the separate property and the community property estates upon separation or dissolution.

Note that this only applies to separate property owned prior to marriage with a mortgage that was paid during marriage where an equity position has been increased. For instance, if a mortgage exists but it is an interest only mortgage, payments during marriage do not reduce principal. Therefore, the separate interest of the owner spouse is not improved because the debt remains exactly the same. As a general rule, the amounts paid for interest, taxes, and insurance on the house are disregarded since that portion does not to contribute to the capital investment.

Also, it assumes that the mortgage was paid with joint (community) funds, or that the funds used were so commingled that the "separatizer" is unable to trace them to a separate property source (meaning they don't have records showing where each payment was made or are unable to provide a recapitalization of the source of the funds). If your husband reduced the mortgage throughout the marriage but he did it with an account that was his separate property then the community would not have this reimbursement right.

The Moore Marsden formula requires a number of bits of information at important points in time to be properly calculated. These include: a) what was the original purchase price; b) what was the original mortgage and downpayment; c) what was the property worth at the date of marriage (DOM); d) what was owed to the lender at that time; e) what was the property worth at the date of separation; f) what was owed at that time; g) what is the property worth on the date of the calculation (i.e., the trial date); h) and what is the principal pay-off at that time?

This is a really good example of why family law and divorce cases can become quite expensive. Obtaining these records, particularly if you are the 'out spouse' can be difficult, and sometimes a forensic accountant is the best option for calculating these apportionments. Find a local CPA with family law experience to help you trace the funds. You need an experienced family law attorney for these types of matters as well.

For other answers to family law questions, visit http://www.ThurmanArnold.com/

In your case, with a lengthy marriage and little owing, you have significant Moore-Marsden entitlements.

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Answered on 1/07/10, 8:45 am
Robert Mccoy Law Office Of Robert McCoy

It depends on whether the house was purchased in both your names or her name alone. If the house was purchased in both your names, then the court should consider the inheritance to be a gift to the marriage, and the court should not give the gift back to her (although I can see her attorney arguing this).

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Answered on 1/07/10, 11:14 am


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