Legal Question in Real Estate Law in California

Mortgage payments are current, however mortgage against value is seriously upside down is upside down 1st TD (NO 2nd)

California HOA is threatening to Foreclose in 2 Days for arrear dues approx. $10,000.

Homeowner has been making payment on arrears on prior agreement.

Homeowner fell behind again after making $7,000 in payments. HOA keeps adding Fees every month.

HOA appears to be vindictive. Makes no economic sense. Since Homeowner was / is paying all be it slowly.

Does homeowner have any period of time to reclaim property IF HOA forcloses?


Asked on 2/18/13, 11:06 am

3 Answers from Attorneys

Yes, I believe it is six months but would have to look up the exact time. But why would the homeowner do that? It makes no economic sense to keep a property that is upside down and pay mortgage payments and HOA dues AND back HOA dues. Let the HOA have it, and lose it to the bank. Also, the HOA foreclosure will be an act of default on the mortgage. So the bank will foreclose quickly, leaving the homeowner really no time to get all this cured. Save your money, let the property go, and move on.

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Answered on 2/18/13, 11:28 am
Anthony Roach Law Office of Anthony A. Roach

If the association sells the property via a nonjudicial foreclosure (which mirrors a trustee's saleunder a deed of trust) the highest bidder takes ownership subject to a 90-day right of redemption. A judicial foreclosure is different, and may have a longer redemption period. The redemption period allows the foreclosed owner to "redeem" the property by paying the delinquent amounts plus any collection fees and costs. (Code Civ. Proc., � 729.035, Civil Code, � 1367.4(c)(4).)

In the event the buyer of the foreclosed property incurs expenses for maintenance and repair work on the unit which were reasonably necessary for the preservation of the property, he can include those expenses in the redemption price. (Barry v. OC Residential Properties (2011) 194 Cal.App.4th 861.)

During the 90-day redemption period title to the property does not transfer to the highest bidder. Instead, the trustee records a "certificate of sale" which gives notice of the bidder's right to the property. If the delinquent owner does not redeem the property within the 90-day period, title is recorded and ownership transfers to the buyer.

Because the highest bidder does not officially own the property until redemption period ends, the bidder does not have a right of possession and cannot evict the owner from the property during the redemption period. Once the redemption period is over and title transfers, the buyer can evict anyone who might be in possession of the property by means of an unlawful detainer action.

The buyer of foreclosed property has the right to collect rents and profits from persons in possession of the property. (Code Civ. Proc., �729.090.)

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Answered on 2/18/13, 2:22 pm

Mr. Roach is correct, it is three months (or more specifically 90 days), not six months.

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Answered on 2/19/13, 2:31 pm


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