Legal Question in Real Estate Law in California

Do I have to pay back money I never received?

What avenues can I take when the promissory note I signed was based on funds I never received? My husband and I borrowed money from a financial institution to purchase our

home. The loan was in the amount of $50,000 to purchase the

property, and $53,000.00 in the form of a construction loan.The $53,000.00 was held ''in trust'' and is referred to by our lender as ''broker controlled funds''. The lender placed very strict guidelines to receive the funds in trust,

that are now appearing to be unobtainable. If the promissory

note was for $103,000.00+ based on the total amount if we

received all of the funds- but we may only receive the $65,900 we have already received, (due to the condition the

lender placed that states our repairs have to be complete

within 6 months of our first draw), are we obligated to pay

the $103,000.00+ ? Our lender also made us sign an agreement

that although we have 11 months to refinance and pay back

the loan- if we don't have a ''Certificate of Occupancy''

within 6 months, than our loan is in default and he has

several options-- none good. Is this legal? Our loan was

also set up with an interest rate of 12.89%. Thank You.


Asked on 3/22/03, 11:17 pm

2 Answers from Attorneys

Larry Rothman Larry Rothman & Associates

Re: Do I have to pay back money I never received?

You may have a case and it depends on the paperwork you have. Please call Mary at my office to set up an appointment.

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Answered on 3/26/03, 10:01 am
Bryan Whipple Bryan R. R. Whipple, Attorney at Law

Re: Do I have to pay back money I never received?

"Receiving" borrowed money is not strictly necessary in order to be liable for its repayment. For example, when you borrow money to buy a house, the seller receives the money, and you receive the property (subject to a mortgage).

Similarly, in this deal you may have received all the value or benefit that was intended or promised to you, even if you didn't get all the money you borrowed in your own hands.

Further, promissory notes usually start out saying "For value received, I promise to pay...." which raises a strong legal presumption that you received full value.

Therefore, the question as to whether you are obligated on the promissory note is likely to boil down to whether the other parties breached any part of their agreement with you, or whether you were defrauded. Merely "not getting the money" is not necessarily a defense...maybe it wasn't intended that you get it; rather, only that you get some benefit.

Nevertheless, based on the facts you've given, I think a strong case MAY exist that you didn't get all you bargained for, or that you were cheated. Your defense against the note probably must be based on establishing fraud or breach of contract on some aspect of the entire deal other than the note itself. Further, if the note is negotiable and is sold off to an innocent "holder in due course," you may have no defense against that holder. You would have to pay up and then go after the original lender offensively, charging breach of contract and/or fraud.

The 12.89% interest rate may or may not be usurious, depending upon prevailing rates when the loan was made and the classification of the lender and the loan. However, this is an additional defense to consider.

Probably the lender is required to be licensed by the Department of Real Estate. You could contact the DRE to see whether there are other complaints against this lender and whether the DRE sees any problems with the lender's tactics.

The amount of money in question is enough to make it worth contacting a lawyer for an initial review of the documents and facts and paying for an analysis of your situation with respect to breach of contract, usury, fraud and DRE violation issues.

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Answered on 3/23/03, 12:48 am


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