Is this true? "All written law must show its limitation on territory someplace in its wording" And, if it is, what is the basis for the statement?
Asked on 3/21/12, 1:07 pm
1 Answer from Attorneys
Edward Hoffman
Law Offices of Edward A. Hoffman
It is not true. Any statute (which is what most laypeople have in mind when they refer to "written law") presumptively applies throughout the territory of the government that enacted it.
Answered on 3/21/12, 1:48 pm
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