When a court has "jurisdiction" over a home to be sold in a Marital Settlement Agreement...can the parties make arrangements to sell the house in a different format other than what is specifically stated in the court papers? What could the consequences be if it were to be initiated without the court's permission?
Asked on 8/21/10, 7:55 am
1 Answer from Attorneys
Lucreita Becude
Lucreita D. Becude, P.A.
It depends on what the agreement is and what your documents state.
Answered on 8/26/10, 9:10 am
