Legal Question in Family Law in Illinois

my divorce decree states that i have to pay half the credit card debt from the proceeds of the sale of the house. after 3 years of trying to sell in this market, we did sell, but there where no proceeds, we actually lost money.

do i still have to pay the credit cards since there were no proceeds ? the other side says i do because the intent was to pay a martial debt. then why didn't they use that wording?

thank you


Asked on 10/31/09, 10:39 am

1 Answer from Attorneys

Sue Roberts-Kurpis, Esq. Law Office of Sue Roberts-Kurpis

Who do you expect to pay the debt if you don't. The other side is right.

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Answered on 11/05/09, 11:29 am


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