Legal Question in Banking Law in India

Under sarfaesi act 2002, bank can sell property by private treaty sale i.e under rule 8(5)(d). what is the procedure of the same and since the property in possession of the bank borrowers consent is necessary or not. In my view the if the bank wanted to sell the property by borrower consent then the powers under the sarfaesi act 2002 diluted because the borrower will not give consent to such sale as his property forcefully possessed by the bank. How to proceed with the private sale in this situation and any judgement is there regarding the same.

Under the sarfaesi act 2002 the rule 8(5) (a to d) are provided for the sale of immovable property. When the rules are there and bank has taken possession of the property then why the recource of private sale treaty without the consent of the borrower is not available to the bank. What is use of legislation.


Asked on 6/11/11, 2:06 am

1 Answer from Attorneys

J. Radhakrishnan independent Practice

in terms of the Supreme court's various decisions,a bank or for that matter a financial institution should act fairly. Only if the mortgagor gives consent, the bank can go in for sale by private treaty. Otherwise, fairness requires that the bank advertises by public auction the sale of the property . If it does not get a good offer in such process, it can go in for sale by private treaty. In such an eventuality, it is expected that the bank puts the mortgagor on notice that the Bank has received a better offer by private sale, and if the borrower is able to bring a serious offer higher than that, within a time stipulated, the bank will sell the property to the better offerer. Otherwise, the bank will go ahead with the offer it has received. Thus fairness which is expected of a bank will be got established. The rules are only enabling provisions. That does not mean the bank can act arbitrarily without taking into confidence the mortgagor

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Answered on 6/11/11, 5:30 am


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