If a person is about to buy goods which he does NOT know were stolen, could he be indicted under the law?
Is it fair for the police to detain such an individual who was oblivious to the stolen nature of the goods?
Asked on 6/01/11, 8:02 am
3 Answers from Attorneys
Arent Lievens
Advocates Lievens & Lievens
If that person could absolutely not suspect that the goods were stolen, the he is innocent. Circumstances matter of course: buying something unbelievingly cheap, buying something from the boot of a car, etc will all imply that there was knowledge of impropriety.
Get in touch with a solicitor quickly.
Answered on 6/01/11, 12:37 pm
Shrichand Nahar
S.V.Nahar, Advocate
I agree with opinion of Adv. Arent Lievens.
Answered on 6/01/11, 9:32 pm
Aniruddha Pawse
Aniruddha.P.Pawse Advocates
if he doesn't know that the goods are stolen and purchases the same in good faith then no.
Answered on 6/02/11, 10:40 pm
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