billing for services
We received an invoice from my husband's primary physician in October 2008. This was the first time we received an invoice from the doctor, and it included services back from November 2005. The physician initially told my husband that he would not be billed for co-pays, etc. Is it allowable for a service privder to bill for services rendered 3 years earlier?
Thanks,
Linda Morrison
Re: billing for services
Do you have a written contract indicating the No Charge language?
If not the account payable survives until the end of the statutory limitations period.
How much is at stake?
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