Before my ex husband and I got a divorce, he purchased two vehicles, the trade in vehicle for these two vehicles had alot of debt on it. The debt was supposed to be equally distributed between the loans on both of the two new vehicles. I was never on either of the loans or loan applications. During the divorce I had said I would claim the debt of one of the vehicles. I am now finding out all of the debt from the trade in vehicle was put on the vehicle loan that I pay towards. I pay my exhusband directly since I am not on the loan. My question is, is do I have to assume the debt on this vehicle? I know I said I would on the court papers but can they legally make me? I was never on the original loan or title. I do not want to have to pay for this vehicle anymore if I don't have to.
1 Answer from Attorneys
Hello. Of course, it makes complete sense that you do not want to pay for something unfairly or wrongly or incorrectly. Please contact a private attorney such as me for legal advice. The attorney will want to view the divorce decree in order to provide appropriate legal advice to you. Some attorneys are available seven days for emergency legal needs. Many attorneys will confer initially at no charge. Then, if legal work is performed, some attorneys will provide a reduced fee for financial hardship. Some attorneys may also assist you in limited scope manner to conserve legal costs. All the best. Tricia Dwyer, Esq., 612-296-9666 St. Cloud-Twin Cities