when state makes a sale of immovable property then why there exist no right of preemption? what is the basic analogy behind it?
Asked on 1/22/10, 6:54 am
1 Answer from Attorneys
you have not mentioned how the government actually sell this " through the open auction or by tender or some other possible ways which obviously not the selling as two individuals do.
Answered on 1/26/10, 2:50 am
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