Verbaly Binding?
If I agree to settle a matter of damaged property (summary offense) I was not indirectly responsible for damaging and the second party agrees to their own requests/demnds.
If they were to change their mind and press charges wouldn't it look bad in court/make any charges irrelavent. Considering that they had previously agreed to a settlement outside of court.
Also, would this help my case if they had agreed to accept outside of court.
Thanks
Asked on 1/25/08, 11:32 am
1 Answer from Attorneys
John Gibson
John W. Gibson, Esquire
Re: Verbaly Binding?
I'm not sure if I understand the question but I'll take a stab at it. If the party that directly caused the property damage settled with the victim, then I don't think the District Attorney's office is going to be interested in pursuing charges against someone who was indirectly involved. But, as with most things, this depends on the facts.
Answered on 1/25/08, 11:43 am
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