Does property own by I party become joint property at divorce settlement no pre nuptials
Asked on 12/20/17, 8:27 am
1 Answer from Attorneys
Matthew Nahrgang
Nahrgang & Associates, P.C.
Marital property is defined as property acquired from the date of marriage to the date of separation. So, yes, whose name any property is in is irrelevant to the issue. The same is true of all assets, not just real estate, including retirement accounts, etc.
I trust this answers your question, but feel free to call or e-mail me on a free initial basis.
Very truly yours,
Matthew R. Nahrgang, Esquire
35 Evansburg Road
Collegeville, PA 19426
(610) 489-3041 ph
(610) 489-3042 fax
mnahrgang@verizon.net
www.nahrganglaw.com
Answered on 12/20/17, 11:00 am
