Legal Question in Real Estate Law in Texas
1995 My husband & I were purchasing owner financed property for 10 years with unrecorded "contract for deed". Husband & I divorced in 2002. I still owed $2000 on property when lost contact of owners in 2003, they moved & shortly after I moved too. Tax roll is in my name and I have continually paid taxes since 1995 to current. Property is now just a wooded area. Is this property legally mine now or how do I get it in my name?
1 Answer from Attorneys
The standard form of a contract for deed (bear in mind that I've never read YOURS) says that after all the payments are made, the purchaser has the right to receive a deed to the land. Have you made all of the payments on the property? Did anyone else make all of the payments under the contract for deed?
My guess is that nobody complied with the terms of the contract, and therefore you don't have any rights in the property.
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