Legal Question in Business Law in Virginia
Manufacturer A has always sold a product to single-store Retailer A and to multiple-store Retailer B, which the two retailers have always resold to the public.
Now, because Retailer B purchases so much of the product from Manufacturer A, it has made Manufacturer A agree not to sell a certain type of this product any more to Retailer A. This type of the product had been a big money-maker for decades to Retailer A.
Is this considered illegal, such as an illegal "Restraint of Trade"?
Thanks!
Asked on 8/02/09, 11:03 pm
1 Answer from Attorneys
Cary Moseley
Law Office of Cary Powell Moseley, PLLC
Possibly illegal, but you would need to develop more facts and do some legal research, as well as a review of the contracts. Good luck.
Answered on 8/03/09, 8:35 am
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