Slayer Law
My son, in an act of passion, shot his wife then turned the gun on himself. Due to slayer law all assets reverted back to the wife so his children by a previous marriage received none of the estate (his 401K) When there is no prior intent to comit the crime, should the slayer law come into play?
Asked on 5/18/08, 1:38 pm
1 Answer from Attorneys
Michael Hendrickson
Law Office Michael E. Hendrickson
Re: Slayer Law
As long as the "slayer law" imposes no requirements regarding proof as to the intent of the slayer, then, of course, it will be deemed applicable to the kind of situation which you've described.
Answered on 5/18/08, 6:04 pm
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