Legal Question in Real Estate Law in California

Real Property

If the grant deed to real property states that all three individuals are named all as joint tenants, how is the equity partitioned if the house is sold or if one owner wants to buys out the others?


Asked on 8/31/06, 12:02 pm

3 Answers from Attorneys

JOHN GUERRINI THE GUERRINI LAW FIRM - COLLECTION LAWYERS

Re: Real Property

One third each, subject to each tenant's right of offset for money paid towards the property (mortage, insurance, taxes, etc.)

For example, if only one tenant paid 100% of the costs of the upkeep of the property, then that tenant is entitled to "reimbursement" from the other two, which is accomplished through the partition action.

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Answered on 8/31/06, 12:06 pm
Judith Deming Deming & Associates

Re: Real Property

Generally speaking, all contributions, etc. being equal, each party would be entitled to one-third of any sales proceeds. The parties could always agree among themselves to a different distribution. With respect to "buying out" other parties, unless the parties all agree to a sale, there would need to be a partition action.

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Answered on 8/31/06, 12:21 pm
Bryan Whipple Bryan R. R. Whipple, Attorney at Law

Re: Real Property

Joint tenants always have equal shares of legal title. When there are three joint tenants, each owns 1/3. In addition to legal title, however, there is so-called equitable title, which may differ from legal title and would affect rights in appreciation; there is also the right to reimbursement mentioned in the previous answers, which is a dollar-for-dollar payback matter and does not affect percentage ownership.

Equitable title is most likely to differ from legal title when the contributions to down payment don't square with the percentages of legal title, but if this property was inherited (my guess), there is probably no disparity between legal and equitable title (although a careful attorney should interview you and investigate the possibility).

If one owner wants to buy out the others, it is simply a matter of private negotiation; no owner is required to buy or sell at any given figure. Realistically, of course, a fair division of the net proceeds would reflect whatever a court would order in a partition, since a partition suit is always a possibility lurking in the background at a buy-out negotiation.

In a partition, after the court determines that the plaintiff is entitled to partition (there are few defenses, but they include an express or implied waiver of the right), there would be a sale and a further proceeding to determine the fair division of the net proceeds after paid liens and costs of sale are deducted. At that point, the judge or a court-appointed refereee would review the arguments for reimbursement of excess expenses, sharing of third-party rents received by an owner in possession, etc. and then a final order would be handed down.

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Answered on 8/31/06, 2:02 pm


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