District of Columbia  |  Personal Injury

Legal Question

Asked on: 3/26/09, 3:24 pm

Name calling

It occured to me that if you are around a bunch or people andone personcalles another ''nigger'' andthe other person responds with out any objection, then arn't they publically allowing themselves to be called by that ''name''. So howthen can they object when another, having heard this name used and responded to without objection, be unjustified in clling them by the same ''name''. The object here is for all to stop using it, not just a select group of people. Thanks

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