I recently purchaced a home. Between my fence and my rear neighbor's fence is an open strip of land approximately 18 inches wide. Since it is between both fences, no one is maintaining the land and there is no access point (i.e.: gate) to get to it. The neighbor's fence is a 8 ft. privacy fence, and mine is a 4 ft. chain-link. To cover the overgrowth of weeds, I placed rocks from my yard in the space. The neighbor has since said that it is his property and that I need to remove the rocks. Since he has all but abandoned the space by making it inaccessible to himself, does he still claim to the space provided fell within his property boundary prior to him constructing the fence?