Legal Question in Civil Litigation in Oklahoma

Re: Purchased Gifts

Yes. If the intent to use personal funds as a "gift" was not conveyed up front or during the time of this transition. This convenyance must be present before you can consider these purchases as a gift, particularly, if you had obtained the purchased items using funds owned by another.

Re: Purchased Gifts

Hopefully this additional info will also help:

The transition of a gift to another is usually are conveyed up-front and it must have been conveyed that this item was purchased and given to you without contracts or attachements. If any of the above occurred, it is definitely not a gift. Secondly, if this transition of money to purchase something for you was defined as as a "gift" for reason that it was purchased with the understanding or intent not to be reimbursed; No, you do not have to pay it back.

However, if it was openly discussed and conveyed that personal use of anothers money by anothers use, even as a favor, with the understanding that you were to reimburse them for the use of their money. And, the money used was primarily used to purchase tangible property for you or on your behalf and you were aware of this understanding at the time, it is not a gift. Because this information and condition was convey to you (verably or in writing) before this transaction took place.