Virginia  |  Family Law

Legal Question

Asked on: 8/20/12, 7:39 pm

My wife and I have decided to divorce. The reason is due to adultery on my behalf. The concern we have now is our house. The deed has both our names, however, the mortgage is just in my name. Legally, how would this be handled? Would the property have to be sold? Would she need to refinance under her name only? Note: if sold today, house would either break even in the loan or we would have some equity to split.

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