Legal Question in Product Liability in California

Who is liable for damages when there was no written contract ?
On Friday night 3/30/01 my son rented the use of a gym for a dance party - he paid $2000 cash for 5 hours rental. It was a spur of the moment affair so no contract was shown or signed, nor did he receive a receipt. During the party $600 of damage was done to some equipment. My son is just 17 (not legal) so the owner called me yesterday 4/9/01 and stated that if I did not come in by 4/11/01 and pay the $600 that he would start legal proceedings against me. I am at a loss as to MY rights in this deal - morally it is my (my sons) bill and I do realize that the renting of the gym is basically an ''implied'' contract - so he did rent the space and therfore the equipment within . But I would think that the gym has insurance to repair their equipment and I am a little concerned that the owner is only taking cash - with no receipts - for these events. Please advise

Asked on 4/10/01, 1:59 pm

Ken Koury Kenneth P. Koury, Esq.

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Re: Who is liable for damages when there was no written contract ?

there is no rule. it is up to the court to sort it out. if i were you i would tell them to go after the people who did the damage.

Answered on 8/03/01, 10:38 pm

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