Legal Question in Real Estate Law in California
an ex landlord is leining property of my brother my father and myself for back rent of a commercial property which we do not have a contract signed with him personally. the contract we have for leasing the commercial property is with the ex owners. is this legal?
2 Answers from Attorneys
Normally, a lien can only be created by someone suing and obtaining a court judgment against you, then recording the judgment, which then amounts to a 'lien claim' on all your real and personal property. With that judgment they can levy on your bank accounts and wages. If that is what you mean is threatened or is happening, then fight the lawsuit and try to avoid a judgment against you. If serious about hiring counsel to help in this, and if this is in SoCal courts, feel free to contact me. I�ll be happy to help fight and get the best outcome possible.
The contract does not have to be with the new owners to be legitimate. When the old landlord sold to the new owners, the new owners became your landlord.
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