In my divorce decree, it states that my ex-husband was to accept a marital debt, pay promptly when due, and "indemnify and hold Wife harmless therefore."
Since he hadn't made his payments, they put a lien on my property and I am having to pay his debt. Isn't a divorce decree a legal and binding document, and should I not have to pay his debt?
Asked on 2/04/10, 8:56 am
1 Answer from Attorneys
Timothy Klisz
Klisz Law Office, PLLC
No, you have to pay the debt, but have an actionable claim against him for failing to pay it and you are damaged to the amount you paid on "his" debt. Can bring the matter back to your divorce judge. www.kliszlaw.com Tim Klisz
Answered on 2/09/10, 11:27 am
