Legal Question in Family Law in Texas

My name William Hatt, recently separated and have moved from my home and into an apt. the house is not in my name it is in my wife�s and her mother�s name. The house is up for sale at 230k the loan owed is 170k.

I told my wife that she can have all of the profits from the sale of the house but she still demands that I pay for half of the house payment and half of all utilities until the house sells which come to 1600.00 a month from me. I make 65k a year and she makes 45k a year we have no kid together, she has a 16yr old son living at home with her. We agree that she takes her car and I take mine and she can have everything in the house including the 50k profit from the sell of the house when it sells but I do not want to pay the 1600.00 a month to her house when I have to pay 1000 a month for an apt.

She is DEMANDING I pay her the 1600.00 a month, being the house is not in my name am I legal responseable for have of the payment when I done even live there any longer?

Can she sue me for alimony or anything like that?

Please advise.

William D. Hatt

281-736-5092


Asked on 11/02/11, 8:55 am

1 Answer from Attorneys
Ken Gober (Austin TX) Lee, Gober & Reyna

William,

First, since this site is public I suggest that you remove this posting since is has your name and phone number.

Second, I am a divorce lawyer and I handle cases in Williamson County (as well as surrounding counties).

Generally, your wife can't have it both ways. If she insists that you pay until the house is sold, then you should have a say in home much the home is sold for. Since you are giving up all claims to any profit from the sale you would be in a position to list the property for the outstanding loan amount.

Call me for a free consultation: 512-827-7548 (after hours number) ; 512-478-8080 (business hours)

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Answered on 11/02/11, 9:06 am


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