Legal Question in Wills and Trusts in Texas

If a person X gets part of a property on his name from grandfather. Person X was a kid when he got it. Person Y and Z who are siblings did not get anything . Remaining property, grandfather wrote it on his daughter-inlaws name. X, Y and Z are sons of this daughter in law. Will person X still eligible for equal share as person Y and Z fom his mom? Accordingly to equal division of assets rule - person X should not get equal asset of remianing property as he already receieved part of it from his grandfather - right? Moraly this is true?


Asked on 12/20/12, 2:52 pm

1 Answer from Attorneys
Donald McLeaish McLeaish&Associates;, P.C.

Not true...X owned property by deed I presume..hence not part of estate given to d=law...and dlaw can do what she wishes ..leave all to one or all three or give to third party.

Morality does not enter..it is what is legal..

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Answered on 12/20/12, 2:58 pm


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