Legal Question in Medical Malpractice in Virginia

This email came at an oportune time. My question is: If my wife came down with "herpes" and her obgyn told her that if she had not been messing around then the ONLY way for her to contract "herpes" was for me to have contracted it from someone and brought "IT" home and gave it to her. I feel this is the reason she divorced me and caused untold pain for me. There is another medicallly accepted reason for her contracting "herpes" without me giving "IT" to her. I have been tested and I don't have IT, never had it! Can the doctor be sued for malpractice? If so, what is the statued of limitation on such a thing.
Thanks soo much,
Joseph Conner
[email protected]
1828 Chamberlain Street
South Boston, Virginia 24592
(434)572-4231

Asked on 9/21/10, 7:01 pm

Michael Hendrickson Law Office Michael E. Hendrickson

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No, not under these facts (if you mean successfully sued by you since

you apparently were never the doctor's patient).

Answered on 9/26/10, 8:11 pm

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