Legal Question in Real Estate Law in California

If my boyfriend bought a house we both lived in and I paid him $1000 each month for the mortgage then 2 years later he sold it wouldn't I be entitled to some of the profit?

Asked on 11/14/13, 8:51 am

2 Answers from Attorneys

Bryan Whipple Bryan R. R. Whipple, Attorney at Law
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No. If you had contributed to the down payment, the answer would be different - you would rather likely be considered an equitable co-owner under the "purchase-money resulting trust" theory. However, assisting with mortgage payments isn't the same. Even if you had mailed your $1,000 checks directly to the mortgage company (which might not have accepted them anyway), you would not be considered as "buying in" to ownership. Your payments would be considered just a general contribution to household expenses, or perhaps as rent.

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11/14/13, 9:25 am
William Christian Rodi Pollock
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Was your name on the deed?

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11/14/13, 2:29 pm

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