Legal Question in Real Estate Law in California

My partner and I put up two real estate holdings as collatoral for a small business loan. Two years later the bank (verbally) agreed to release the holdings and remove the liens placed on those properties. They drew up papers, had them notarized and recorded in the county where the holdings reside. After this, I sold my piece of property to another individual. A few months later the bank decided they wanted the liens placed back on the properties and did so without notifying us or asking for us to sign anything. We are now in danger of losing the business and defaulting on the small business loan. They are threatening to force a trustee's sale on those properties if we do not get current on our loan. My question is can they change their mind about releasing the liens after they recorded the releases with the assessors office? Also, I do not own my property anymore. Is the new owner in danger of losing that property? If so, can they sue me for anything? I sold that property without any liens on it and a title company issued a title insurance policy on the property. They wouldn't have done this without a clear title. Does the bank have a case against us?


Asked on 3/02/10, 5:36 pm

2 Answers from Attorneys

You have a whole lot of issues jumbled together here and some confusing information. First and foremost, there is no way the bank could lien the properties again without new papers signed by you and your partner. They may or may not be allowed to change their minds about requiring collateral, depending on the terms of your loan documents, but they cannot re-record released deeds of trust. If they have the right to demand the leins go back on, they have to record new deeds of trust with your new signatures. If they try to enforce the lien on the property you sold, the title company will defend the title. If they have a right to collateral and you cannot give it, however, that will be a further default on the loan. As for whether the bank has a case against you personally, well, if you havent' paid the debt, then of course they do.

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Answered on 3/07/10, 8:55 pm
Bryan Whipple Bryan R. R. Whipple, Attorney at Law

I think you mean the Recorder's Office, not the Assessor's. Also, how was the lien supposedly released? If the real property was put up via a deed of trust, the normal way to release it is by a reconveyance of the deed of trust. Anything short of a recorded reconveyance is of doubtful effect........I have recently read cases questioning whether a quitclaim deed from the trust deed beneficiary to the trustor (borrower) is effective. In any event, whatever the lender recorded needs to be read, and read in overall context, to determine its true significance. My guess since your buyer was able to insure his title is that the release is effective, but the lien of the DofT might have been an exception to the title insurance.

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Answered on 3/07/10, 10:07 pm


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