I was recently in an work related auto accident while driving my own car. I have been collecting workers compensation. My company was paying me and it was in writting $400 as an allowance for me to use my own car for work. It was a blanket $400 not specified for mileage. The car accident I was in on the job was caused by and unisured motorist. This accident happened in Florida. My company does have UM coverage of 1 million dollars. I have multiple permanent injuries to my cervical and lumbar spine as well as my rt shoulder and bladder... There is a clause in their Comprehensive auto policy that states "Owned Auto's Only"..... Even though they did not own my car is their a way around this clause since they paid me $400 per month. Could this be considered implied ownership?