We bought a home. The lender sold our mortgage to another company and somewhere along the way the title was lost. Then the property went into foreclosure, but no one can buy due to having no title. The last time we went to court, the judge told them that if they came back without a title, she'd dismiss the case with prejudice and give us the property. Now this company has gone and sold the mortgage again to another company. I am fairly sure that the new company is unaware that they have purchased a mortgage without a title to it. What should we do? Thank you in advance for your help.