Hello there !
My wife owns 1/2 of her deceased fathers property and her aunt owns the other half. The property was originally owned by the grandparents. No problems so far. The property has a mortgage that was signed by both the aunt and my wifes deceased father. My wifes fater was making the mortgage payments and only his name was on the bill but the note was signed by both. When the property is sold, are both the aunt and my wife equally responsible or is my wife responsible for the entire amount from her half of the proceeds ?