this is a bit complcated ,my ex husband and I divorced in 2002 He was court ordered through our divorce stipulation to sign a Quick deed over to me removing him from the deed. However for whatever reason this was not done I thought it had,then in 2005 he moved back into the home but in a separate apt. we refinced amortgage then but in April of 2009 he walked out and feuses to pay the mortgage.Does the divorce stipulation remain in effect from our divorce we never remarried?
2 Answers from Attorneys
I think you are confusing the issue of the deed with the issue of the mortgage. You would still have to sign over the deed. However, since you re-mortgaged the property after the divorce, you would be responsible for payment - even if you do not own the house.