Florida  |  Legal Ethics

Legal Question

Asked on: 12/23/12, 7:23 am

Is it acceptable, or even legal for the government to "change terms" once a process is already in play? For instance, let's say I was charged $30 for "service of process", and then later get a bill for $10 from the court because the process server managed to later re-negotiated a higher fee for themselves?

note: not the real situation, but illustrates the issue fairly satifactorily

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