Before my ex husband and I got a divorce, he purchased two vehicles, the trade in vehicle for these two vehicles had alot of debt on it. The debt was supposed to be equally distributed between the loans on both of the two new vehicles. I was never on either of the loans or loan applications. During the divorce I had said I would claim the debt of one of the vehicles. I am now finding out all of the debt from the trade in vehicle was put on the vehicle loan that I pay towards. I pay my exhusband directly since I am not on the loan. My question is, is do I have to assume the debt on this vehicle? I know I said I would on the court papers but can they legally make me? I was never on the original loan or title. I do not want to have to pay for this vehicle anymore if I don't have to.